When grammatically reflecting on Ps. 51:17 Domine, lábia méa apéries., a question comes to my mind: Is the future tense in Latin more of a request than a statement of fact?
In other words, is there a reason why the English translation of this does not render it as the future tense that it is: Lord, you will open my lips, rather than as a request: Lord, open my lips?
Novice Latin Student
In other words, is there a reason why the English translation of this does not render it as the future tense that it is: Lord, you will open my lips, rather than as a request: Lord, open my lips?
Novice Latin Student